This Aramaic papyrus is, I believe, the earliest extrabiblical text that mentions the Jewish Passover. It was recovered from the Jewish garrison on the island of Yeb (Elephantine) in Egypt and dates to 419 BCE.
The first discussion question is easy - the plural is a mistranslation of an idiomatic use of the form "Elohim". The same construct appears in the Bible itself - "G-d of Abraham" is "Elohai Avraham".
My guess it that the king "orders" this observance because these guys are soldiers, so it's a directive (maybe from the equivalent of a Jewish chaplain?).
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The Persians seemed to have a bit more tolerant 2,500 years ago.
The first discussion question is easy - the plural is a mistranslation of an idiomatic use of the form "Elohim". The same construct appears in the Bible itself - "G-d of Abraham" is "Elohai Avraham".
My guess it that the king "orders" this observance because these guys are soldiers, so it's a directive (maybe from the equivalent of a Jewish chaplain?).